This question is an outgrowth of What is the difference between electric potential, potential difference (PD), voltage and electromotive force (EMF)? , where @sb1 mentioned Faraday's law. However, Faraday's law as part of Maxwell's equations cannot account for the voltage measured between the rim and the axis of a Faraday generator because ∂B∂t=0. It would've been a different story if the derivative were dBdt but it isn't. A palliative solution to this problem is given by invoking the Lorentz force. However, Lorentz force cannot be derived from Maxwell's equation while it must be if we are to consider Maxwell's equations truly describing electromagnetic phenomena. As is known, according to the scientific method, one only experimental fact is needed to be at odds with a theory for the whole theory to collapse. How do you reconcile the scientific method with the above problem?
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