Saturday, 22 November 2014

spacetime - Interval preserving transformations are linear in special relativity


In almost all proofs I've seen of the Lorentz transformations one starts on the assumption that the required transformations are linear. I'm wondering if there is a way to prove the linearity:


Prove that any spacetime transformation $\left(y^0,y^1,y^2,y^3\right)\leftrightarrow \left(x^0,x^1,x^2,x^3\right)$ that preserves intervals, that is, such that



$$\left(dy^0\right)^2-\left(dy^1\right)^2-\left(dy^2\right)^2-\left(dy^3\right)^2=\left(dx^0\right)^2-\left(dx^1\right)^2-\left(dx^2\right)^2-\left(dx^3\right)^2$$


is linear (assuming that the origins of both coordinates coincide). That is, show that $\frac{\partial y^i}{\partial x^j}=L_j^i$ is constant throughout spacetime (that is, show that $\frac{\partial L_j^i}{\partial x^k}=0$).


Thus far all I've been able to prove is that $g_{ij}L_p^iL_q^j=g_{pq}$ (where $g_{ij}$ is the metric tensor of special relativity) and that $\frac{\partial L_j^i}{\partial x^k}=\frac{\partial L_k^i}{\partial x^j}$. Any further ideas?



Answer



In hindsight, here is a short proof.


The metric $g_{\mu\nu}$ is the flat constant metric $\eta_{\mu\nu}$ in both coordinate systems. Therefore, the corresponding (uniquely defined) Levi-Civita Christoffel symbols


$$ \Gamma^{\lambda}_{\mu\nu}~=~0$$


are zero in both coordinate systems. It is well-known that the Christoffel symbol does not transform as a tensor under a local coordinate transformation $x^{\mu} \to y^{\rho}=y^{\rho}(x)$, but rather with an inhomogeneous term, which is built from the second derivative of the coordinate transformation,


$$\frac{\partial y^{\tau}}{\partial x^{\lambda}} \Gamma^{(x)\lambda}_{\mu\nu} ~=~\frac{\partial y^{\rho}}{\partial x^{\mu}}\, \frac{\partial y^{\sigma}}{\partial x^{\nu}}\, \Gamma^{(y)\tau}_{\rho\sigma}+ \frac{\partial^2 y^{\tau}}{\partial x^{\mu} \partial x^{\nu}}. $$


Hence all the second derivatives are zero,



$$ \frac{\partial^2 y^{\tau}}{\partial x^{\mu} \partial x^{\nu}}~=~0, $$


i.e. the transformation $x^{\mu} \to y^{\rho}=y^{\rho}(x)$ is affine.


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