Helmholtz equations for electric and magnetic fields are
∇2H+k2H=0 ∇2E+k2E=0
Obviously, if a solution is found to satisfy the electric field equation, it must also satisfy the magnetic field equation. A wave traveling between two media has an electric field magnitude in medium one proportion the magnitude in medium two, in other words
|E2|=T|E1|
where T is the Fresnel transmission coefficient. Is this true for the magnetic field as well?
|H2|=T|H1|
If not why? How do we explain that the Helmholtz solution for electric and magnetic field could be the same?
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