Monday, 25 July 2016

quantum field theory - Does dilation/scale invariance imply conformal invariance?


Why does a quantum field theory invariant under dilations almost always also have to be invariant under proper conformal transformations? To show your favorite dilatation invariant theory is also invariant under proper conformal transformations is seldom straightforward. Integration by parts, introducing Weyl connections and so on and so forth are needed, but yet at the end of the day, it can almost always be done. Why is that?




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