Friday, 15 July 2016

magnetic monopoles - Theoretical reasons for charge quantization


I'm aware of Millikan's oil drop experiment and I've read that quarks have fractional eletric charge, but I was wondering if there's any theoretical argument that makes us believe charge is quantized.


I've also read about Dirac's famous work in which he demonstrated that if a magnetic monopole exists then electric and magnetic charge have to be quantized.


But if it doesn't exist? Is there any other theoretical reason for the charge to be quantized or is that the only way we know?




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