lagrangian formalism - Defining quantum effective/proper action (Legendre transformation), existence of inverse (field-source)?

Given a Quantum field theory, for a scalar field $\phi$ with generic action $S[\phi]$, we have the generating functional

$$Z[J] = e^{iW[J]} = \frac{\int \mathcal{D}\phi e^{i(S[\phi]+\int d^4x J(x)\phi(x))}} {\int \mathcal{D}\phi e^{iS[\phi]}}.$$

The one-point function in the presence of a source $J$ is.

$$\phi_{cl}(x) = \langle \Omega | \phi(x) | \Omega \rangle_J = {\delta\over\delta J}W[J] = \frac{\int \mathcal{D}\phi \ \phi(x)e^{i(S[\phi]+\int d^4x J(x)\phi(x))}} {\int \mathcal{D}\phi \ e^{i(S[\phi]+\int d^4x J(x)\phi(x))}}.$$

The effective Action is defined as the Legendre transform of $W$

$$\Gamma[\phi_{cl}]= W[J] -\int d^4y J(y)\phi_{cl}(y),$$ where $J$ is understood as a function of $\phi_{cl}$.

That means we have to invert the relation

$$\phi_{cl}(x) = {\delta\over\delta J}W[J]$$ to $J = J(\phi_{cl})$.

How do we know that the inverse $J = J(\phi_{cl})$ exists? And does the inverse exist for every $\phi_{cl}$? Why?