in the context of non-relativistic quantum mechanics I want to show that, for any A and B operators
eAeB=eA+B
if and only if
[A,B]=0
I remember my professor told use about looking for a differential equation but I don't remember the details, and I want to be able to prove it. Brute force the series doesn't seem to be a good idea.
Any hint will be appreciated thanks.
Answer
There is no 'only if' because it is not true: eA+B=eAeB does not necessarily imply [A,B]=0.
One can easily find an example of this using matrices. Here's one: A=(0002πi),B=(0102πi). [A,B]≠0 but eA+B=eAeB=I.
Edit: Let me help with the if part, using a differential equation as OP desires. Compute ddt(et(A+B)e−tAe−tB), and show that it is 0 if [A,B]=0.
That implies that et(A+B)e−tAe−tB is independent of t. In particular, plugging in t=0 gives et(A+B)e−tAe−tB=I for all t. Then plug in t=1 to get e(A+B)e−Ae−B=I.
QED.
No comments:
Post a Comment