Sunday 17 January 2016

To which extent is general relativity a gauge theory?


In quantum mechanics, we know that a change of frame -- a gauge transform -- leaves the probability of an outcome measurement invariant (well, the square modulus of the wave-function, i.e. the probability), because it is just a multiplication by a phase term.



I was wondering about general relativity. Is there something left invariant by a change of frame? (of course, energy, momentum, ... are invariants of Lorentz transform, but these are special relativity examples. I guess there is something else, more intrinsic and related to the mathematical structure of the theory, like a space-time interval or something).


I've tried looking at the Landau book on field theory, but it is too dense for me to have a quick answer to this question. I have bad understanding about GR -- I apologize for that. I'm trying to understand to which respect one calls the GR theory a gauge theory: for me a gauge transform leaves something invariant.


Best regards.


EDIT: Thanks to the first answers, I think I should refine my question and first ask this: To which extent is general relativity a gauge theory? If you have good references to this topic, that would be great(The Wikipedia pages are obscure for me for the moment). Thanks in advance. Best regards.



Answer



Consider a gauge theory with gauge group $GL(n,R)$.


First of all, let me remind you the basics of gauge transformations:


Let $G$ be a gauge group, $g(x)∈ G$ be an element of $G$. Then:


$\psi (x)→g(x)\psi (x)$


$A_\alpha→g(x)A_\alpha g^{-1}(x)-\frac{∂g(x)}{∂x^{\alpha}}g^{-1}(x)$



is a gauge transformation, and covariant derivative defined as


${\nabla}_{\alpha}\psi = \frac{∂\psi}{∂x^{\alpha}}+A_\alpha \psi$


Now consider coordinates $(x^1, ..., x^n)$ in region $U$. They define basis of vectors space $\frac{∂}{∂x^1},...,\frac{∂}{∂x^n}$. So, tangent vector fields in region $U$ can be considered as vector-valued functions: $\xi = (\xi^1,...,\xi^n)$. Change of coordinates in $U$: $x^{\nu}→x^{{\nu^{\prime}}}=x^{{\nu^{\prime}}}(x)$ defines local transformation:


$\xi^\nu→\xi^{\nu^\prime} = \frac{∂x^{\nu^\prime}}{∂x^\nu}\xi^\nu = g(x)\xi$.


Here matrix $g(x) = (\frac{∂x^{\nu^\prime}}{∂x^\nu})$ belongs to $GL(n,R)$, and inverse matrix has the form $g^{-1}(x)=(\frac{∂x^\nu}{∂x^{\nu^\prime}})$.


Lie algebra of $GL(n,R)$ is formed by all matrices of degree $n$, so the "gauge field" $A_\mu (x)$ is also matrix of degree $n$. Let us denote it's elements as follows:


$(A_\mu)^{\nu}_{\lambda}=\Gamma^{\nu}_{\lambda \mu}$.


Covariant derivative of the vector $\xi$ reads as follows:


$(\nabla_{\mu}\xi)^\nu=\frac{∂\xi^\nu}{∂x^\mu}+\Gamma^{\nu}_{\lambda \mu}\xi^\lambda ↔ \nabla_\mu \xi=\frac{∂\xi}{∂x^\mu}+A_\mu \xi$ (right side is in matrix form!)


There is only one thing left to check, namely the form of gauge field transformation.



Using general rule of transforming gauge field we obtain:


$\Gamma^{\nu}_{\lambda \mu}→\Gamma^{\nu^\prime}_{\lambda^\prime \mu}=\frac{∂x^{\nu^\prime}}{∂x^\nu}\Gamma^{\nu}_{\lambda \mu}\frac{∂x^\lambda}{∂x^{\lambda^\prime}}+\frac{∂x^{\nu^\prime}}{∂x^\nu}\frac{∂}{∂x^\mu}(\frac{∂x^\nu}{∂x^{\lambda^\prime}})$.


Since $A_\mu$ is a covariant vector, then $A_{\mu^\prime}=\frac{∂x^\mu}{∂x^{\mu^\prime}}A_\mu$. Hence we obtain:


$\Gamma^{\nu^\prime}_{\lambda^\prime \mu^\prime}=\frac{∂x^\mu}{∂x^{\mu^\prime}}\frac{∂x^{\nu^\prime}}{∂x^\nu}\Gamma^{\nu}_{\lambda \mu}\frac{∂x^\lambda}{∂x^{\lambda^\prime}}+\frac{∂x^{\nu^\prime}}{∂x^\nu}\frac{∂^2 x^\nu}{∂x^{\lambda^\prime}∂x^{\mu^\prime}}$.


Q.E.D.


And final remark: the commutator of two covariant derivatives leads to expression of the Riemann tensor:


$(F_{\mu\nu})^\rho_\lambda = R^\rho_{\lambda ,\mu\nu}$


EDIT:


Dear Oaoa,


I’m not a GR specialist, so what I have written below might be wrong.



My first advise is as follows: do not read Landau who is mixing up two fundamental concepts: connection and metric.


Instead I encourage you to read "Space-time structure" by Erwin Schrödinger.


In order to answer your question let us first separate the roles of connection and metrics.



  1. Connection is used for parallel transport and enables to compare two vectors in different points. Important consequence is that using connection one can introduce the curvature tensor (that can further be contracted to curvature scalar). Curvature appears when you transport vector along the closed curve and then compare with the initial vector. Curvature scalar is then used to construct “field action” just like in all gauge theories.


As shown in Schrödinger’s book, connection can also be used to measure distance along geodesic line (it worth noting that the expression for such “measure” is so much similar to the expression of Feynman’s path integral action!). But in general, connection cannot be used for measuring distances between arbitrary points.




  1. Metric is introduced for measuring distances between arbitrary points and defining vector products.





  2. Connection and Metric are independent concepts. Only additional condition of their consistency (i.e. when you require that vector product is invariant when both vectors are parallel transported) allows to express connection via metric tensor.




Let’s get back to your question now. All that is written about $GL(n,R)$ above is related to connection only. In the first place, it allows expressing “field action” in terms of a scalar curvature. But what you are most interested in is probably not this, but conservation laws related to matter fields. In the theory with point particles functions $\xi$ (or $\psi$) can be associated with vectors $\frac{dx^\nu}{ds}$. I’m not sure, but consequent conservation law is probably energy-momentum conservation. I think it is the same in Special relativity where space is flat and all connections are zero, but indirectly the conservation of energy-momentum in SR might be a consequence of “conservation” of null curvature by Lorentz transformations (please note that homogeneity of space-time means zero curvature). I know you expect to see some other conserved quantities similar to “electric charge” conservation in Dirac theory of electron. But please note that in Dirac theory the “global” conservation of “charge” is practically indistinguishable from conservation of energy-momentum. As for local theories – I do not know, concrete model need to be considered.


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