I remember an exact differential as:
$$A=M(x,y)dx+N(x,y)dy $$
and the condition for be exact is:
$$\frac{\partial M}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial N}{\partial x}. $$
Can I use that definition to proof that $dW=pdv$ is not an exact differential?
I was thinking in use $W=W(p,V)$ and calculate
$$dW=\frac{\partial W}{\partial p}dp+\frac{\partial W}{\partial V}dV$$
and try to find a way to refute the idea of an exact differential for $pdV$. Am I right?
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