In deriving an expression for pr, a particle's radial momentum, I am unsure what is happening at a certain step. The derivation given in The Physics of Quantum Mechanics by Binney and Skinner is as follows:
The only step after that last equation is to simplify and you get pr=−iℏ(∂∂r+1r)
Answer
To show that the operator −iℏ2(1rr⋅→∇+→∇⋅r1r) equals the operator −iℏ2(∂∂r+3r−rr2+∂∂r) you first note they are functions so you have to show that the send the same vectors in the Hilbert Space to the same vectors in the Hilbert Space.
So let |A⟩ be an arbitrary wavefunction (in the domain of both operators) and show the two operators send |A⟩ to the same wavefubction. Don't forget the product rule, and this is really just what it means to show two operators are the same.
It's like verifying that two matrices are the same by comparing each column to each column.
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