Friday, 2 January 2015

quantum mechanics - The relationship between angular and linear momentum


Why is orbital angular momentum not 0 when spin and linear momentum are not collinear?


Why can it be 0 when spin and linear momentum are parallel?


Like in the example of a scalar field at rest decaying into an electron and a positron via interaction $\frac{1}{2}g\phi \bar{\Psi}\Psi $



If spin is along x axis and three-momenta is along z axis, decay rate will be 0 if two spins are opposite because orbital momentum is not 0 after decaying.




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