If I have an equation of a signal in the frequency domain given by
$L(x)=\frac{1}{\pi}\frac{\frac{1}{2}\Gamma}{((\omega-\omega_0)^2+(\frac{1}{2}\Gamma)^2)}$
and I want to convert this to the time domain, can I do this using the inverse Fourier transform? I think the result should be an exponential, but when I tried to calculate this on mathematica I got a strange result.
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